Saints' Discussion Forums

I tried finding this on our forums but I didn't come up with anything so I thought I would start a new post.

I was praying after the Eucharist this Sunday on how to fulfill God's will on Earth and how will I know whwat he wants of me and immediately to read the Bible popped in my head as if the Holy Spirit was talking to me.


I started reading Matthew and the first chapter concerns me, and I cannot find any answer online, and to be frank, what I read online only confuses me more. (which is sad because I humbly prayed that the Holy Spirit would guide me while reading God's Words)

This is what I read that bothered me:
Matthew 1:25 with the New American Bible (which I bought the bibe at a Catholic bookstore).
"He (joseph) had no relations with her (mary) until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus.


Why would joseph have relations with Mary after??? Isn't that the opposite of what our church teaches yet it is written in the bible??


Can someone please spread light on this?
May God be with you all.

Jacki, it isn't that Joseph had relations with Mary after - it is a way of describing the fact that Jesus' birth was from a virgin. To say that since he didn't have relations before Mary had Jesus (but had them after Jesus' birth) is like saying that: Rachel didn't beat her children before they were teens (but she beat them after they were teens). It doesn't necessarily follow. The Bible is dealing with that moment, not Mary and Joseph's future.


"Imitate her [Mary], holy mothers, who in her only dearly beloved Son set forth so great an example of material virtue; for neither have you sweeter children [than Jesus], nor did the Virgin seek the consolation of being able to bear another son"


St. Ambrose
[A.D. 388]).

wait a minute!  I didn't beat them before or after they were teens!  Just like Mary was a virgin before and after the birth of Jesus.  just thought I'd make that little bit clear...lol

St. Matthew says that Joseph knew her not till she brought forth her first-born son:  1:25.

Nor did he.  And the expression "till" in Hebrew usage has no necessary reference to the future.  Thus in Gen. 8:7, we read that "the dove went forth from the ark and did not return till the waters dried up."  That expression does not suggest that it returned then.  It did not return at all, having found resting places.  Nor does the expression firstborn child imply that there were other children afterwards.  Thus Exodus says, "Every first-born shall be sanctified unto God."  Parents had not to wait to see if other children were born before they could call the first their first-born!

Resource:  Our Lady of the Rosary library

 :rotfl: :rotflblue:

Jacki,



This was an example ONLY and certainly didn't have anything to do with Rachel's wonderful mothering skills. ;D In fact, Rachel has some very good examples and explanation!

Good information! :D

Thank you everyone! This helps clear alot!

   
If the firstborn child is a daughter, is she still sanctified unto God?

[Correct. The first born child is brought to the temple and ransomed by paying the Redemption price of five shekels of silver after one month for every firstborn. Otherwise they would belong to the Lord and serve in the temple.