Romans 3:23
"all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God"
In view of the above, how do I defend our belief that Our Lady never sinned?
The thread is from another forum. I want to post a reply and I have a general idea but stating it clearly and convincingly is the problem.
Thanks.
This is a hyperbole uttered by the Prophet, which Paul is making use of to teach that all need God's glory and that justification is given freely through the grace of God and redemption through Jesus Christ, whom God has offered as a means of reconciliation by means of faith in His bloody passions, even unto justification and remission of sins by which God's patience shows His justice in our time so that God may be reveled to be Just and the Justifier of all whom have faith in Jesus Christ.
Romans 3:23-26 Douay Rheims
"For all have sinned and do need the glory of God.?
?Being justified freely by his grace, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,?
?Whom God hath proposed to be a propitiation, through faith in his blood, to the shewing of his justice, for the remission of former sins,?
?Through the forbearance of God, for the shewing of his justice in this time: that he himself may be just and the justifier of him who is of the faith of Jesus Christ?"
Original sin was transmitted by the concupiscence of lust, and Mary, whose conception we acknowledge to be immaculate and free from all concupiscence and itself miraculous, is the cause of her unique status as sinless.
The sinless nature of Mary is the perfect humanity of Eve before the fall and elevated by her obedience by which she merited eternal life through unfailing obedience to God.
The teaching of the Apostle cannot nullify the tradition of the Church which has always taught Mary's sinlessness, perpetual virginity and assumption into heaven.